Gato_Solo
Out-freaking-standing OTC member
In his WAREZ thread, Hex cites an example of insider trading that got my interest.
Enron, WorldComm, etc got big coverage in the media and, as a result, got everybody interested on what's wrong in some businesses. No IMO, no matter how you sugar-coat it, what happened was theft in general, grand larceny in particular, so why are the punishments so light? A person robbing a house can get 5 to 15 years, depending on circumstances, and their take could be as little as $50 USD. These folks who do insider trading, embezzelment, and other 'white collar' crimes get huge amounts in comparison, but they get off in a minimum security prison for a maximum of five years. Aren't they both thieves? Didn't they both cause undue financial hardship on others? Indeed, one could say that the insider trader, or embezzeler, caused more harm because more people were affected, so why the disparity in sentencing? Why the seperation and alternate descriptions?
Enron, WorldComm, etc got big coverage in the media and, as a result, got everybody interested on what's wrong in some businesses. No IMO, no matter how you sugar-coat it, what happened was theft in general, grand larceny in particular, so why are the punishments so light? A person robbing a house can get 5 to 15 years, depending on circumstances, and their take could be as little as $50 USD. These folks who do insider trading, embezzelment, and other 'white collar' crimes get huge amounts in comparison, but they get off in a minimum security prison for a maximum of five years. Aren't they both thieves? Didn't they both cause undue financial hardship on others? Indeed, one could say that the insider trader, or embezzeler, caused more harm because more people were affected, so why the disparity in sentencing? Why the seperation and alternate descriptions?