Jeslek
Banned
OK I have been thinking about a few things (I love philosophy, economics, political science, and sociology, and how they relate to each other).
How much should we, the members of the G8 countries, intervene in third-world countries?
This question is more complicated than it looks, so I'm going to put down a few pointers. I'm not going to give my opinion just yet though.
By intervention, we can mean a lot of things. Should we send aid packages to poor countries? Why, or why not? On the one side you will be helping people, but you can spend that money just as well in your own country by helping out the poor people, homeless, etc. (speaking like a liberal now, ugh).
If we do help other countries, shouldn't we have a say in their politics, or at least influence it? What gives them the priviledge of getting free stuff from the richer countries?
Do we have the authority to dictate them? Dictate here is used as a synonym to intervene. On what basis do we have the right to intervene and dictate into the internal workings of another country?
If we say we don't have any right (and such would warrant the complete withdrawl of all the United States' forces from the world, where we are intervening [such as Israel]), then how come we have the right to send aid to a poor country? You may say that the aid will help people. But so will military intervention (such as helping the Israelis).
If we say we have such a right, then of course we can send aid to foreign countries. But where does it stop? Why can't we then intervene in the internal politics?
Just some thoughts... ) I'm doing some research for my philosophy essay.
How much should we, the members of the G8 countries, intervene in third-world countries?
This question is more complicated than it looks, so I'm going to put down a few pointers. I'm not going to give my opinion just yet though.
By intervention, we can mean a lot of things. Should we send aid packages to poor countries? Why, or why not? On the one side you will be helping people, but you can spend that money just as well in your own country by helping out the poor people, homeless, etc. (speaking like a liberal now, ugh).
If we do help other countries, shouldn't we have a say in their politics, or at least influence it? What gives them the priviledge of getting free stuff from the richer countries?
Do we have the authority to dictate them? Dictate here is used as a synonym to intervene. On what basis do we have the right to intervene and dictate into the internal workings of another country?
If we say we don't have any right (and such would warrant the complete withdrawl of all the United States' forces from the world, where we are intervening [such as Israel]), then how come we have the right to send aid to a poor country? You may say that the aid will help people. But so will military intervention (such as helping the Israelis).
If we say we have such a right, then of course we can send aid to foreign countries. But where does it stop? Why can't we then intervene in the internal politics?
Just some thoughts... ) I'm doing some research for my philosophy essay.