So the point you are all making is that people who didn't vote dont have a right to an opinion? Or are you just saying that they dont have a right to express it publicly?
You're lucky that you have your rights enshrined in a constitution because it looks like there are plenty here who would like to arbitrarily abolish them.
Funny thing that, every time I look at peoples opinions on the impending Iraq war I see that those most strongly favouring war are also those who would like to abolish freedom of speech, though only for "liberals" and others with whom they disagree of course.
Jesus Christ, are people still arguing over simple statistics?
Half the people in the US didn't vote. Period. Using blind statistics, the odds are that roughly half the people in any anti-war demonstration did not vote either.
It stands to reason though that anyone in an anti-war demonstration is more politically active than the average citizen, so it's likely that a larger percentage of them than the national average voted. It is at least possible.
Glad you made that point OLI, it supports exactly what Flavio was saying. Namely that any
conjecture that "the proportion of non-voters amongst the anti-war protesters is the same as that of the overall electorate" is just that, a conjecture. This conjecture is normally what would be referred to as the "
null hypothesis" in any statistical study and data would need to be gathered in order to either verify or refute this claim.
Indeed the valid point you make is that an alternative hypothesis exits, namely that, as a group, the protesters may be more politically involved than the average citizen and therefore may have a higher than average voting participation rate. I find it strange that you try to be-little what Flavio was trying to say by using an arguement which (to me) supports exactly what he was actually saying. And the statistical arguement that he was making is very relevant because in my opinion the original poster was trying, if anything, to infer that the protesters had a lower than average participation rate.
Does it matter whether that is 55%, 60%, or 70%?
NO!
Gato_Solo's point was that there were plenty of them that didn't vote. And they should have. Geez, some people like to derail any argument made from someone who's viewpoint they don't agree with, regardless of what the actual content of the argument was.
If he made this comment "that more people should participate in elections" without the specific conection to the protesters then I'd agree with you. But he is specifically singling them out, why? Why do only the antiwar protestors bare the responsibilty for low voter partitcipation, that makes no sense at all.
And finally another thing I find inconsistent in Gate Solo's post is that he seems to be implying that if there was less voter apathy at election time then Bush would not currently be President. Now this actually implies that GS feels that the
non-Bush voters (which presumably according to GS constitutes many of the antiwar protesters) must be
more apathetic voters than average, (otherwise an overall decrease in apathy in the electorate as a whole would cause the opposite outcome - in other words, if less apathy were to change the result of the election then the non-Bush voters must be the ones with the most apathy to lose if you undersatand what I'm saying.)
So I believe I am correct to say that the original post tends to imply that the protesters are more apathetic voters than average. A statement which not only is pure conjecture but for which neither firm data nor even logical argument is presented to back it up (as Flavio tried at length to pointed out). In fact as OLI points out there is a very resonable logical case that the exact opposite is true! In my humble opinion Flavio was the only person making much sense in this crazy thread.