outside looking in
<b>Registered Member</b>
With so many threads approaching this topic, and then wandering back on the original thread topic, I thought maybe we should have a separate thread to discuss this fairly complicated philosophical question.
A thread that is removed from the current Iraqi conflict. A thread that is about the question in a more general sense.
What 'right' does one people/country/organization/etc. have to affect changes in another?
If a leader is executing foreign citizens by the millions, does another country have the 'right' to intervene? Do the executed foreign citizens have the 'right' for help?
If that leader is executing his own citizens by the millions, does that change the answer?
If he is starving his own people to death, slowly, by the millions, does that change the answer?
If he is executing his own people by the hundreds of thousands, does that change the answer? By the thousands? Starving by the thousands?
If they are only on the very edge of poverty and starvation, but not dying in great masses, does that change the answer?
If he is depriving them of some other 'right' (i.e., freedom, or anything else another group might think is a basic human 'right'), does that change the answer?
If the citizens ask for help, does that change the answer? If they are denied the freedom to ask, does that change the answer?
Does the intent of the leader make the difference? i.e., if it is intentional starvation, or only a lack of resources, intelligence, or otherwise that leads the people to die in great numbers, does that change the answer?
What are your thoughts on this? Don't worry, many great philosophers have struggled with these questions, so no one expects anyone here to have all the answers. Just wanted to know what the trend in thinking was on these issues.
A thread that is removed from the current Iraqi conflict. A thread that is about the question in a more general sense.
What 'right' does one people/country/organization/etc. have to affect changes in another?
If a leader is executing foreign citizens by the millions, does another country have the 'right' to intervene? Do the executed foreign citizens have the 'right' for help?
If that leader is executing his own citizens by the millions, does that change the answer?
If he is starving his own people to death, slowly, by the millions, does that change the answer?
If he is executing his own people by the hundreds of thousands, does that change the answer? By the thousands? Starving by the thousands?
If they are only on the very edge of poverty and starvation, but not dying in great masses, does that change the answer?
If he is depriving them of some other 'right' (i.e., freedom, or anything else another group might think is a basic human 'right'), does that change the answer?
If the citizens ask for help, does that change the answer? If they are denied the freedom to ask, does that change the answer?
Does the intent of the leader make the difference? i.e., if it is intentional starvation, or only a lack of resources, intelligence, or otherwise that leads the people to die in great numbers, does that change the answer?
What are your thoughts on this? Don't worry, many great philosophers have struggled with these questions, so no one expects anyone here to have all the answers. Just wanted to know what the trend in thinking was on these issues.